Matt’s comment

Matt left a comment on the thread Believing “in” and believing “that” that is too off-topic to discuss there. On the other hand, it touches on a common Baha’i apologetic tactic, which basically goes like this: “Christian interpretations of the Bible disagree with Jewish interpretations, and you believe Christianity is true. Therefore, Baha’i interpretations of the Bible can also be true”.

Here is Matt’s comment:

Hmmmm…

Jewish polemicists have been accusing Christians for centuries of pretending to believe and follow the Torah, but “mean something entirely different than us”, and thus have been derided of “omission.” In fact, they accuse Jesus personally of willfully deceiving the public who “don’t know any better” with his convenient quotations of some verses from the Tanakh, and avoidance of other quotations that wouldn’t bolster his claim.

Christian polemicists have been accusing Muslims for centuries of “not really” believing in Jesus and the prophets of the Tanakh, and at one point derided them as “heretical Christians” because they couldn’t wrap their minds around the idea that a religious community independent from Christianity could exist, even if it was “false.”

Muslim polemicists have been accusing Baha’is for one-hundred and sixty-four years of pretending to believe in the Qur’an and the prophethood of Muhammad (pbuh), but “mean something entirely different than us” by it. I guess my question is if all of this supposed deception is so well-known by the “knowledgeable” of each preceding religious community in reference to the “new, false” religious community, what motivation would the “new, false” community have to keep continuing to doing such a horrible job of deceiving people who apparently can’t be deceived? Or is there something else going on?

I’m not a Baha’i, by the way. I just think it is something to think about….

I’m confused by your question and I’m not sure exactly what you’re getting at. Let me try to rephrase it to make sure I don’t misunderstand you: Baha’is don’t really distort the meaning of the Bible, because knowledgeable Christians accuse them of doing so. If Baha’i distortion were as obvious as “knowledgeable” Christians claim it is, then why would Baha’is continue to do it?

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